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Glossary of Terms and Abbreviations
Click Character to Jump to First Entry Beginning with that Character
1 4 A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W x Y Z
1/4 Short for Quarter Attack.  The ideal pursuit and firing pass is for the attacking fighter to approach from the left or right rear quarter of the enemy aircraft, opening fire at 300 yards and ceasing at 200 yards. The ideal opening angle is 20 degrees off the enemy flight path and closing at 15 degrees.   Cine Assessors have techniques using the cine-gun camera film that enables them to measure these parameters.    They are very difficult to achieve, particularly at high altitudes and thus require a great deal of practice.    It is easy to slide line astern with no angle off.   This is dangerous as the attacking fighter will probably fly in to the debris from any hits on the target.

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Fantastic shot, by kind permission of Mac McLelland, that sums up everything about Flag Gunnery at Sylt.

Fighter squadrons of all NATO Nations in 2ATAF had to spend about one month at least once a year, sometimes more often if they were lucky, to practice live firing on the gunnery ranges out over the North Sea, just West of the Island of Sylt.   The targets would be towed at heights, usually varying between 15,000 and 20,000+ feet AMSL, by Meteors flying at a speed of 180 knots.   Firing aircraft would start their attack from a "perch" position on a parallel course to the target, and about 3,000feet above, and 3,000 yards abreast of the Meteor.   A hard level turn into the target would then be made, reversing at the 90° position and diving down into a curve of pursuit towards the target.   In the early days, Vampires and Venoms would aim to fire with their gyro gunsights set at a 'pegged' range of around 250 yards.   With the advent of the Hunter, radar ranging enabled firing accuracy over a wider range bracket.   A metal reflector was attached to the banner's spreader bar to assist the radar locking on to the target, and generally this would occur at a range of about 3,000 feet.   Then it was a case of steady tracking with the pipper on the bullseye and give it a short burst at about 1,000 feet.   Judging range was much a matter of relative size ratio of the pipper to banner width.   The ideal Hunter speed at open fire range was about 360 knots, and 10° flap greatly helped steady things in the tight pursuit curve.

Mac says on his site: "This is how we used the ranges at Sylt.   The white nylon banner, 30 feet long by 6 feet tall, is being towed by a Meteor VIII.   The two seat Vampire T11, (we had no two seater Venoms on 266 Sqn), is being used for instruction.   The Vampire is shooting its cannons at the banner.   In fact he has just reached the Minumum angle-off at which he is allowed to fire and would now cease fire and break up and over the flag.   He would then continue right and back out to the "perch" on the shoreward side.   He would always attack from shore to open sea to avoid spraying the beaches with cannon shells.   Four attackers would each fire 100 rounds (50 from each of two guns) at the one banner.   Each attacker would be shooting rounds dipped in a coloured dye.   So there would be holes in the flag in four different colours and a count would be the straight percentage of hits for each.   If you shot Red cannon shells and there were 23 red holes then your score was 23%.   The flags were dropped on a ground range and brought by truck to the Squadron hangar where the eager pilots would be awaiting the count."

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Gunnery Flag Duxford.   Bob Bingham and John Lakeman counting their hits - July 1958.

In the top picture, showing a Vampire T.11 making an attack, the Meteor, tow cable and banner can be clearly seen.   One would hope that the Vampire in this instance has ceased firing since he is at the minimum permitted angle-off.   Although there is foreshortening in the picture it nevertheless shows why the Meteor tow pilots would complain bitterly if you slid towards a line astern position and continued to fire at the target.   This was not only easy to do but it could also give some false hits when the bullets penetrated in and out of the fluttering banner causing several (long) holes.   Staff PAIs counting the hits were quick to spot this 'crime', and would hasten to check the gun camera film for proof that the 'sinner' had fired below 15° angle-off.   Those most offended, of course, were the tug pilots who would get very voluble if they could hear the bullets whistling past their cockpits!

Another danger of continuing to fire at low angles and close range was that it increased the chance of a bullet cutting the tow cable.   If this happened the 30 foot banner, with its enormous drag, stopped immediately and with a very high closing speed the attacker would be hard pressed to avoid collecting it.   It has been known, on more than one occasion, that an aircraft returned home with the banner and spreader bar firmly embedded in the leading edge of a wing.

Mac tells me: "The Vampire and the flag picture was taken by one of our chaps when we were being flown on demos by the Sylt PAIs.   It is possible that the T11 is being flown by Ken Goodwin as he was one of the PAIs involved.   Not sure what year it was but not our first detachment in 1953 because the tugs then were all Tempests.   BTW...I note from my logbook that the only Demo I had on that detachment was with Ken Goodwin on 26th Sept 1953.   I was lucky enough to have seven Sylt detachments.   I was the squadron PAI after the first detachment and on the one in Nov 1954, 266 Squadron won the Duncan Trophy.   (Thanks to Mac McLelland and Chris Stone)

48 Short for 48 hours or 2 days. Typically a two day pass or stand-down for a weekend covering Saturday and Sunday.
A0A2 Code used in En-route documents to indicate the type of Radio Beacon station. With this type the Voice/Carrier Wave switch should be in the Carrier Wave (CW) position with Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) on. For identification use the switch should be in the Voice position with Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) off.
A37 Code used in En-route document to indicate the type of air starting trolley that is available at an airfield. A37 has a foreign designation of A3 and provides air at 3,200/3,500 psi.
A&DSB Aylesbury and District Sub Branch.
AA Anti-Aircraft
AAD Apparatus, Air Defence part of the Long Aerial Mine project in WWII.
AAE-44B-2C German Air Force runway arrester gear similar to the UK Rotary Hydraulic Arresting Gear Mk1.
AAE-44B-2D German Air Force runway arrester gear similar to the UK Rotary Hydraulic Arresting Gear Mk1.
AAFCE Allied Air Forces Central Europe
AAL Aircraft Approach Limitations.
AAM Air to Air Missile.
AASF Advanced Air Striking Force
A/B AirBrakes.
ABC Atomic, Biological and Chemical.
ABn Aerodrome Beacon
AC Army Co-operation or Airfield Construction Branch.
A/C Aircraft or Aircraftsman, or Alternating Current.
ACB Airfield Construction Branch.
ACC Air Co-ordination Centre or accumulator as in trolley-acc, wheeled abbetry sets for starting aircraft.
ACC(G) Allied Control Commission (Germany).
ACI Air Council Instructions.
ACT Air Control Team
ACU Acceleration Control Unit.
A/D Aerodrome or After Duty.
ADC Aide-De-Camp - Officer assisting Air Rank by carrying orders.
ADIZ Air Defence Identification Zone
ADPA Unidentified department in Air Accidents Investigation Branch or CAA.   Anyone know what it stands for?
ADSL Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line.  ADSL, also known as Broadband, is a high speed 24/7 internet connection up to 45x faster than a standard dial up connection.  It also allows multiple PC's to connect to the internet at the same time, by making use of a wireless or cable network.  One of the great things about broadband is that it allows both Internet browsing and phone conversation at the same time.
ADTU Air Direction Training Unit - Royal Navy unit.
AEAF World War One Allied Expeditionary Force
AEAF World War Two Allied Expeditionary Air Force
Aerial Mines Aerial Mines was said to be a pet project of Winston Churchill, the Prime Minister.  It entailed lowering 2,000 feet of cable behind the aircraft and flying this in front of enemy bomber formations.  When an interception was made mines were released on parachutes as a curtain across the front of the enemy formation and they blew up on contact with the enemy aircraft.  This was a dangerous operation as premature mine explosions often damaged the aircraft laying the curtain.
AEW Airborne Early Warning.
AF Air Force or Airfield or A Flight.
AFC Air Force Cross, 1918.  For Officers and Warrant Officers in the RAF (and Fleet Air Arm from 1941) for acts of courage or devotion to duty when flying, although not in active operations against the enemy.
A.F.C. Armament Firing Camp.
AFCENT Allied Forces Central European Theatre
AFDS Air Fighting Development Squadron
AFM Air Force Medal, 1918.  For Warrant and non-commissioned Officers and men for acts of courage or devotion to duty when flying, although not in active operations against the enemy.  (Extended to the Fleet Air Arm 1941)
AFN American Forces Network.
AFS Advanced Flying School
AFTS Advanced Flying Training School
AFV Armoured Fighting Vehicle
AG Air to Ground.
AGL Above Ground Level.
AGM Annual General Meeting
AGRA Army Group Royal Artillery.
AGT Airwork & General Trading (Gatwick, Speke & Ringway)
A/H Artificial Horizon.
AHB Air Historical Branch
AI Airborne Interception.
AIB Accident Investigation Branch.
AIRCENT Allied Air Forces Central Europe.
AL Amendment List.
ALG Advanced Landing Ground.
ALO Army or Air Liaison Officer.
AM Air Ministry or Air Mechanic.
AMO Air Ministry Orders.
AMRL Air Ministry Secret Intelligence Summary.
AMSIS Air Ministry Secret Intelligence Summary.
AMSL Above Mean Sea Level.
AMWD Air Ministry Works Department.
Angels Code word for height
AN/FPS US Radar equipment designation Army-Navy/Fixed permament land-based-Radar (pulsed)-Search.
ANG Air National Guard - US reserve forces.
ANM Air Nautical Miles.
ANN Annotations.
ANNING Anning reflector was a reflective metal box structure added to the flag towing bar so that it gave a stronger return on the radar ranging.
A/O Angle Off.
AOA Air Officer Administration.
AOC Air Officer Commanding.   His annual inspection was an important day when the Station must look and perform at its best.   His staff officers inspected all the detail in the weeks leading up to the AOC's inspection and these were known as "Pre-AOCs".
AOG Aircraft On the Ground. An engineering classification indicating that the aircraft is not fit to fly, used to justify urgent spares requirement.
AOP Air Observation Post.
AP Air Publication or Army Pattern or Asssociated Press.
APC Armament Practice Camp.
APFS Air Publications and Forms Store.
API Aerial Photographic Interpreters.
APP Approach control at airfields.
APS Armament Practice Station
Archie WWI slang for Anti-Aircraft Fire.
ARI Air or Aircraft Radio Installation.
Arr Arrival (-ing)
AS Anti Submarine.
ASF Aircraft Servicing Flight
ASI Air Speed Indicator
ASM Air to Surface Missile.
ASP Aircraft Servicing Platform
ASR Air Search and Rescue or Air Surveillance Radar.
ASW Anti Submarine Warfare.
ATAF Allied Tactical Air Force
ATC Air Traffic Control or Air Training Corps.
ATCC Air Traffic Control Centre.
ATL Aviation Traders Limited (Stansted)
AUW All Up Weight.
AVM Air Vice Marshal - 2 star rank in Royal Air Force
AVPIN Highly inflammable fuel for the starting motors in the Rolls Royce Avons in the Hunter F.6.
AVTAG F-40 is a military wide cut type aviation turbine fuel with FSII used by land based military gas turbine engined aircraft (NOTE 2). Also known as JP-4 or AVTAG/FSII. Within NATO it is an emergency substitute for F-34/F-35Jet fuel JP-4. Until 1986, F-40 was used by land based gas turbine engined aircraft in all NATO countries except France and the United Kingdom which had converted to F-34 some 15 years earlier. Following a decision by NATO Defence Ministers all nations except Turkey switched from F-40 to F-34. The conversion (known as Stage 1 of the Single Fuel Concept) was completed in 1988. Turkey completed its conversion from F-40 to F-34 in 1996.
AVTUR Aviation Turbine Fuel. F-34 is a military kerosene type aviation turbine fuel with Fuel System Icing Inhibitor (FSII) (NOTE 1) used by land based military gas turbine engined aircraft in all NATO countries. (NOTE 2) Also known as JP-8 or AVTUR/FSII. JET A-1 or AVTUR + Additives (NOTE 3) = JP-8 or AVTUR/FSII. Until 1986, F-40 was used by land based gas turbine engined aircraft in all NATO countries except France and the United Kingdom which had converted to F-34 some 15 years earlier. Following a decision by NATO Defence Ministers all nations except Turkey switched from F-40 to F-34. The conversion (known as Stage 1 of the Single Fuel Concept) was completed in 1988. Turkey completed its conversion from F-40 to F-34 in 1996.
AWOL Absent WithOut Leave.
B Bank.
BA Bachelor of Arts degree
BABS Blind Approach Beacon Syustem. A ground-based navigation system that functions as a beacon by emitting pulsed signals, which can be picked up by an aircraft's L-scan cathode-ray indicator. These signals contain information about the aircraft's position with respect to the runway on which it is making a landing. These systems are helpful when an aircraft is making a blind landing based on instruments.
BAF Belgium Air Force
BAFO British Armed Forces of Occupation
BAFSV British Armed Forces Special Vouchers. Also known as "Baffs". Currency used on camps in Germany.
Balbo Large formation of aircraft
BAOR British Army Of the Rhine
Basket Laundry Basket. e.g. Basket List - list of names and addresses of shareholders.
Battle Flight Battle Flight was a round the clock 7 days a week duty in RAF Germany. During the day the day fighter squadrons had to maintain a number, (latterly 2), of fully armed aircraft ready to be scrambled to intercept any suspicious traffic crossing or near the East German border. They had to be airborne in 2 minutes when they were deployed on the readiness pans at each end of the main runway, and 5 minutes if they were held in squadron dispersal. At night the role was taken over by the night fighter squadrons in Germany
Battle Formation The aim of flying in Battle Formation is to maximise the width of the formation so that the outer wing men can reduce the blind spot behind each aircraft. The outer wing pilots can cover the rear of the formation and their opposite number on the other side of the formation. Inevitably it reduces the manoeuvrability of the formation as a whole and decreases the tactical flexibility of the Leader. At high level, turns are restricted to 90 degrees wherever possible so that in 4 ship formations the second pair has to cross over to the other side and thus fly the same distance as the lead pair during the turn. Low level Battle Formation is much more streamlined and swept back as the Leader will usually have to turn a lot more to follow the terrain. Both of these formation manoeuvres require lots of team work and practice.
BCom Bachelor of Commerce.
BEA British European Airways.
BEF British Expeditionary Force.
BEM British Empire Medal.
BF Bristol Fighter or B Flight.
BFBS British Forces Broadcasting Service
BFES British Forces Education Service
BFM Belt Feed Mechanism which was part of the 20mm gun system fitted to the Vampire FB5.
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BFN British Forces Network.
BFO Beat Frequency Oscillator. This is an option on a radio beacon.
Bingo light. Bingo is the NATO codeword for the fuel level at which formation members called "Bingo" to indicate that they had reached a pre-briefed minimum fuel level. On the Hunter there were two lights, one for each fuel system on either side, that indicated 650 lbs of fuel remaining in that side. This may or not be the "Bingo" call for a particular mission but they always acted as a reminder to the pilots that he should be landing soon.
BMH British Military Hospital.
BOAC British Overseas Airways Corporation
BoneDomes Crash helmets for flying
BOQ Batchelor Officers' Quarter.
BOZ British Occupied Zone.
BPC British Purchasing Commission or Barometric Pressure Control.
bps Bits per second.
BRIXMIS BRItish eXchange MISsion.   British Military Mission in East Germany.   [Click to see full description.]
Broadcast Control When electronic jamming reached levels that made it impossible for detailed direction of fighters on to enemy formations then Broadcast Control was introduced where general information on the location of the enemy formations was broadcast by voice and fighters navigated their own way to the interception.   (Click to see full explanation.)
BSA British Small Arms, better known for motorcycles.
BSc Bachelor of Science degree
BTW By The Way.
BUSTER Codeword used in fighter interceptions and means fly at maximum speed.
C and R Control and Reporting
CAA Civil Aviation Authority.
CAS Chief of the Air Staff.
CasEvac Casualty Evacuation
Category of Damage There are 5 Categories of Damage to RAF aircraft.

Categories 1 and 2 are those classified as being repairable using Squadron Technical resources.
Category 3 repair requires station or Command resources. This level of damage is the lowest level of damage to be classified as a Major Accident and must be reported as such.
Category 4 usually requires the aircraft to be returned to a Maintenance Unit in the UK for repair.
Category 5 is considered a write off and the aircraft is beyond repair by RAF resources.

However, the exact defintions have changed over the years. The following summary is provided by courtesy of the RAF Museum at Hendon:

Damage Categories

Before 1941
Cat. U Undamaged
Cat. M(u) Capable of being repaired on site by the operating unit
Cat. M(c) Beyond the unit's capacity to repair
Cat. R(B) Repair on site is not possible; the aircraft must be dismantled and sent to a repair facility
Cat. W Write-off

1941 - 1952
Cat. U Undamaged
Cat. A Aircraft can be repaired on site
Cat. Ac Repair is beyond the unit capacity, but can be repaired on site by another unit or a contractor)
Cat. B Beyond repair on site, but repairable at a Maintenance Unit or at a contractor's works
Cat. C Allocated to Instructional Airframe duties (for ground training)
Cat E Write-off
Cat. E1 Write-off, but considered suitable for component recovery
Cat. E2 Write-off and suitable only for scrap
Cat. E3 Burnt out
Cat. Em Missing from an operational sortie (Missing aircraft were categorised 'Em' after 28 days)

1952 - 1961
Cat. 1 Undamaged and can remain in service.
Cat. 2 Aircraft can be repaired within second line servicing capability of the parent or nearest unit.
Cat. 3 The repair is beyond the capabilities of the parent or nearest unit, and will be carried out as indicated by the following suffixes:
Cat. 3 (Rep)C The aircraft is repairable on site by a contractor's working party.
Cat. 3 (Rep)S The aircraft is repairable on site by a suitably qualified Service unit.
Cat. 3 (Rep)C Fly The aircraft can be flown to the contractor's works after temporary repair, if necessary, under restricted flight conditions.
Cat. 3 (Rep)C Deferred The aircraft may be flown under limiting conditions specified by the holding unit until a suitable repair date is agreed with the controlling authority. Cat. 3 (Rep)C Deferred aircraft will ultimately be repaired by a contractor, while a Cat. 3 (Rep)S Fly Deferred aircraft will be handled by a suitable Service unit.
Cat. 4 (Rep) Not repairable on site because special facilities and/or equipment is required. Aircraft in this category will be repaired at a contractor's works after temporary repair, as necessary, and under restricted flight conditions.
Cat. 4 (Rogue) The parent unit and/or controlling authority have conducted technical investigations and air tests and are satisfied that the aircraft has unsatisfactory flying characteristics.
Cat. 5(c) Beyond economical repair or surplus, but is recoverable for breakdown to components, spares and scrap.
Cat. 5(s) Beyond economical repair or surplus, and fit only for disposal for scrap.
Cat. 5(gi) Beyond economical repair or surplus, but suitable for ground instructional use.
Cat. 5(m) Missing.

1961 - present
Cat. 1 Repairable on site by first line maintenance personnel.
Cat. 2 Repairable on site by second line maintenance personnel.
Cat. 3 Repairable on site but beyond the technical resources of the unit. Repairs will be done by a Service repair party (Cat.3(SER)), or civilian contractor's working party (Cat. 3(CWP)). A Cat. 3(FLY) aircraft may be flown under limitations until repaired.
Cat.4 The damage sustained requires special equipment not available on site and the aircraft must be moved for repair at an established Service repair depot. (Cat.4(SER)) or to a contractor's works (Cat. 4(WKS)). A Cat. 4(FLY) aircraft may be flown from a site, after temporary repairs have been carried out, to the repair agency for full repairs.
Cat. 5 The aircraft is damaged beyond economic repair.
Cat. 5(GI) Damaged or surplus, but suitable for ground instructional use.
Cat. 5(COMP) Beyond economical repair or surplus, but is salvage of components or spare parts is possible.
Cat. 5(SCRAP) Beyond economical repair or surplus, and suitable for scrap only.
Cat. 5(MISSING) Missing - presumed lost.
CB Companion of the Most Honourable Order of the Bath.  Order of Chivalry.  Remodelled 1815, and enlarged many times since.  The Order is divided into civil and military divisions.  Women became eligible for the Order from 1 January 1971.  The Most Honourable Order of the Bath is the third-highest order of chivalry in the British honours system.  It is primarily awarded to serving member of the armed forces, and to some civilian servants.  While the term "Knight of the Bath" goes back into medieval times, referring to a ritual of washing followed by a night of prayer, the order was formally established by King George I on 18 May 1725.  Originally, the Order included the Sovereign, the Great Master and 36 Knights Companions.  The Order is presently limited to 120 Knights and Dames Grand Commanders, 355 Knights and Dames Commanders, and 1,925 Companions. The limit does not include foreign honourary members and Royal Knights.   Also "Confined to Barracks" a punishment.
CBE Commander of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire, 1917.  Order of Chivalry.  The Order was divided into military and civil divisions in December 1918.  The Order is limited to 100 Knights and Dames Grand Cross, 845 Knights and Dames Commanders, and 8,960 Commanders. Also, no more than 858 Officers and 1,464 Members may be appointed per year.
CCA Chief Controller's Assistant.   Fighter Control post also known as Ops. B.
CCF Combined Cadet Force
CCM Unknown abbreviation? Can anyone help? (Click to see an example of use on 16Jan56)
CDTC Controlled Descent Through Cloud.
C Eng Chartered Engineer
CFE Central Fighter Establishment
CFI Chief Flying Instructor
CFS Central Flying School
CG Centre of Gravity
CH Chain Home - Early form of radar protecting UK
CHL Chain Home Low - Early form of radar protecting UK
CIB Criminal Investigation Branch.
CID Criminal Investigation Department or Division.
CIMgt Chartered Member of the Institute of Management
CinC Commander-in-Chief
Cine Gun Small camera which films the view through the gun sight. This is used for practice against other aircraft where live weapons are not possible. After the films have been developed they are used by the weapons instructors to show the pilot where he could improve. They are also used to confirm claimed kills in combat, both real and practice.   Click here for an illustration of ranging and tracking.
Cine Weave In order to improve tracking skills, usually two aircraft would alternately fly as target and attacking aircraft.  The target aircraft flew a gentle rolling and diving/climbing pattern whilst the attacker took cine film showing his ability to keep the aiming "pipper" on the target cockpit. Cine assessors were able to score the cine gun camera film to provide a mark for the attacking pilot. This exercise was held at various heights. It became more difficult to keep smooth tracking at higher altitudes.   (Click to see a full brief).
CIRE Command Instrument Rating Examiner.    The Command Instrument Rating Examiner is the most experienced IRE in a Command who could test and award IRE qualifications to other pilots.   In the RAF the ratings were usually tested every 6 months.   As well as passing the test applicants had also to have certain minimum practical experience, e.g. hours of instrument flying both simulated and actual in the last 6 months.   The hierarchy of qualifications was as follows:
Command Instrument Rating Examiner (CIRE) - Able to test and award to other IREs and below in a Command;
Instrument Rating Examiner (IRE) - Able to examine and award the lower qualifications.   There might be one or two per squadron;
Master Green - Held by the most experienced and able pilots;
Green - Most experienced pilots in flying practice would be expected to hold a Green rating;
White - The first step on the ladder and a minimum before pilots could fly in Instrument Flight Rules weather conditions.
Each level had its own margins of error within which the pilot must fly whilst performing set manoeuvres "under the hood".   The examination was an Instrument Rating Test (IRT) and was obviously conducted on dual seat versions of the aircraft or in a similar type where there was no dual seat version, e.g. the Vampire or Meteor before the Hunter T7 was introduced.   It was usually carried out with the examinee flying with a hood that stopped him seeing the outside world and forced him to fly only on instruments.   The examiner, of course, had to fly in the clear so that he could maintain a lookout.   The test limits were applicable to each aircraft type and may differ depending on the performance of the aircraft.
A higher level rating was sought after as it allowed your Flight Commander to authorise you for solo flight in worst weather conditions than lower rated pilots.   (See Instrument Flight Rules)
I do not have a record of the test limits or content of a Hunter IRT and would be grateful if anyone could let me have a copy.
CME Central Medical Establishment.
CMG Companion of the Most Distinguished Order of Saint Michael and Saint George is a British order of chivalry founded on 28 April 1818 by George, Prince of Wales (later George IV) whilst he was acting as Prince Regent for his father, George III.   The Order includes three classes, in descending order of seniority:  Knight Grand Cross or Dame Grand Cross (GCMG),  Knight Commander or Dame Commander (KCMG or DCMG) and Companion (CMG).   It is used to honour individuals who have rendered important services in relation to Commonwealth or foreign nations.   People are appointed to the Order rather than awarded it.   Ambassadors are regularly appointed CMGs.   Ian Fleming's spy, James Bond, was fictionally decorated with the CMG in 1953 (mentioned in the novel From Russia with Love).   The Order's motto is Auspicium melioris aevi (Latin for "Token of a better age").   Its patron saints, as the name suggests, are St Michael the Archangel and St George.   One of its primary symbols is that of St Michael trampling over Satan.   The Order is the sixth-most senior in the British honours system, after The Most Noble Order of the Garter, The Most Ancient and Most Noble Order of the Thistle, The Most Illustrious Order of St Patrick, The Most Honourable Order of the Bath, and The Most Exalted Order of the Star of India.   The third of the aforementioned Orders—which relates to Ireland, no longer a part of the United Kingdom—still exists but is in disuse; no appointments have been made to it since 1934.   The last of the Orders on the list, related to India, has also been in disuse since the country's independence in 1947.   It is sometimes humorously said that the abbreviations actually stand for "Call Me God" (CMG), "Kindly (or Kings) Call Me God" (KCMG) and "God Calls Me God" (GCMG).   These became generally known from the television series Yes Minister, but were in use in the Diplomatic Service long before that.
CMU Central Maintenance Unit
CO Commanding Officer
Cockerell Unknown piece of WWII electronic equipment
COM Communications
CONTACT Codeword used in fighter interceptions and means I'm visual with the target but still require precise control.
Contrail Condensation trail. At certain heights when the conditions of temperature and humidity are right, the exhaust from the engines of an aircraft leave a trail of white condensation which stands out very clearly and easily gives away the aircraft location. In certain conditions the trails dissipate a short distance behind the aircraft and these are known as non-persistent contrails. Pilots are told during their met. briefing what are the likely height bands for trails for that day.
CoS Chief of Staff.
CPFO Command Physical Fitness Officer.
CplT Corporal Technician.
CR/DF Cathode Ray/Direction Finding.
CRAIG COMPUTER A Craig Computer was used for Fighter Control but was little more than a draughtsman's board on the substrate of which was drawn a map of the relevant geographical area.   The associated draughting instrument was graduated in degrees and nautical miles.
CRC Control and Reporting Centre.
creep Under the great stresses on a tyre when it is spun up from zero to landing speed on touchdown, there is a danger that the tyre carcass will be dragged round the rim of the wheel.   If not checked eventually the nozzle for inflating the tyre which is fixed to the wheel, will tear out of the tyre and cause an explosive decompression.   Therefore on all aircraft tyres there is a paint mark on the tyre and on the wheel and these must stay aligned. If tyre creep is present then these marks will become out of alignment. The pilot checks for this on each wheel during his Outside Checks.
CRUISE Codeword used in fighter interceptions and means fly at .9 Mach (standard interception speed for the Hunter).
CS Cycles per Second or callsign.
CSU Command/Central Servicing Unit or Command Support Unit (Holding Unit).
CU Cumulus cloud.
CVO Commander of the Royal Victorian Order, 1896.  Order of Chivalry.  The Royal Victorian Order is a part of the British honours system which was established in 1896, and is usually awarded to personal servants of the Queen. Also, unlike most other British orders, it is within the personal gift of the Sovereign, rather than being awarded by the Sovereign upon the advice of the Prime Minister.
DATCO Duty Air Traffic Control Officer.
DArmD Deputy Armament Director
DAX Dax trainers were peculiar to the Fighter Controllers' training school at Middle Wallop.
DB Douglas Bomber/Boston aircraft
DC Direct Current.
DCO Duty Carried Out.
DCOS Deputy Chief of Staff.
Dep Departure (-ing)
DF Day Fighter
D/F Direction Finding
DFC Distinguished Flying Cross, 1918.  For Officers and Warrant Officers in the RAF (and Fleet Air Arm from 1941) for acts of gallantry when flying in active operations against the enemy.
DFCS Day Fighter Combat School
DFLS Day Fighter Leaders' School
DFM Distinguished Flying Medal, 1918.  For Warrant and non-commissioned Officers and men in the RAF (and Fleet Air Arm from 1941) for acts of gallantry when flying in active operations against the enemy.
DH Decision Height (USAF/NATO).
DI Directional Indicator or Drill Instructor.
DL Deputy Lieutenant
DME Distance Measuring Equipment.   TACAN and DME are UHF navigation aids that operate in the 1,000 MHz band.   DME ground beacons provide range information only, whilst TACAN beacons supply magnetic bearing in addition to range.   The range function of both TACAN and DME beacons is identical in operation and is based on the transponder principle, but the bearing information of a TACAN beacon is in the form of a continuous transmission.
DP Displaced Persons.
DR Dead Reckoning or Deduced Reckoning or Despatch Rider.
DS Directing Staff
DSC Distinguished Service Cross, 1914.   The decoration to consist of a silver cross, with the reverse side plain, but having on the obverse side in the centre the Imperial and Royal cipher surmounted by the Imperial Crown.   The decoration is to be awarded in recognition of meritorius or distinguished services before the enemy on the part of the following officers:- 1. Commissioned Officers of His Majesty's Naval or Royal Indian Marine forces below the rank of captain, in cases where the services rendered may not be considered sufficient by the Admiralty to warrant the appointment of such officers to the Distinguished Service Order.   2. Warrant officers, acting warrant officers or subordinate officers of His Majesty's Naval or Royal Indian Marine forces provided the services rendered shall have been marked with especial mention in despatches by the admiral or senior naval or military officer commanding the squadron or detached force.   3. Officers and warrant officers of the Royal Air Force serving at sea.   4. Officers of His Majesty's transports and fleet auxiliares and of the merchant navy and fishing fleets who render services in circumstances considered by the Admiraly to merit the award.   5. Foreign officers of equivalent ranks to those indicated at 1 and 2 above who have been associated in naval or military operations with His Majesty's Naval or Royal Indian Marine forces may be eligible for the honorary award of the decoration.   The award of the decoration to carry with it the right to have the letters D.S.C. appended to the officer's name.
DSO Distinguished Service Order, 1886.  The Distinguished Service Order is a British military decoration awarded for meritorious or distinguished service by officers of the armed forces during wartime, typically in actual combat.  It was instituted 6 September 1886 by Queen Victoria, the Royal Warrant being published on 9 November.  It usually goes to Majors and above, but is sometimes awarded to especially valorous junior officers.  8,981 DSOs were awarded during World War I, each award being announced in the London Gazette.  The order was established for rewarding individual instances of meritorious or distinguished service in war. This is a military order for officers only, and while normally given for service under fire or under conditions equivalent to service in actual combat with the enemy, it was awarded between 1914 and 1916 under circumstances which could not be regarded as under fire.   After 01 January 1917, commanders in the field were instructed to recommend this award only for those serving under fire.  Prior to 1943, the order could be given only to someone Mentioned-in-Dispatches.    The order is generally given to officers in command, above the rank of Lieutenant-Colonel and awards to ranks below this are usually for a high degree of gallantry just short of deserving the Victoria Cross.
DT Daily Telegraph or Drop Tank.
Duncan Trophy

93sqnpic088.jpg, 6786 bytes

1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesDuncan Trophy.   It was presented to the RAF by General Gervasio Duncan de Lima Rodrigues, Chief of Staff of the Brazilian Air Force following his visit to the UK in 1947.   He was so impressed by his reception that he decided a trophy might be in order.   The trophy was accepted by Lord Tedder but it then seems that the RAF were not quite sure what to do with it.   It was first awarded to the unit who made the greatest contribution to flying safely and was restricted to day fighter squadrons and RAF Germany, with the first competition being held in 1949.   However, in the rules were subsequently changed until, in 1952, they decided to allocate it solely to RAF Germany to award to the squadron achieving the highest standard in air-to-air firing and all-round weapons efficiency in the 2ATAF.   (Click to see a full brief on the Cine Weave phase of the competition scoring.)   The competition ended in 1960 with 93 Squadron being the final winners.
DV Direct Vision.
E Code used in En-route documents to indicate that Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) frequency of 243.0 and Very-High Frequency (VHF) 121.5, (which are the international emergency frequencies), may or may not be monitored by the station but is available through the appropriate Air Traffic Control Centre.
E2A stationpic822.jpg, 17532 bytes 1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesThe magnetic compasses of the E2 series are miniature instruments, developed for use as emergency or standby compasses where lack of space precludes the installation of the larger standby compass of the P type.   They are of the vertical card-type, the compass card being graduated every 10 degrees with figures every 30 degrees.   The cardinal points are marked by the appropriate letter.   The compasses are designed to give a bench accuracy of ±2½° and an operational accuracy of ±10°.   However, with good flight conditions and a stable heading indication, interpolation may be made to an extent comparable with bench accuracy.

Compass, Type E2A

1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesThe bowl of the compass is of a plastic material with the lubber line marked on the front inside of the bowl.   The stem supporting the compass system is mounted on a bracket which is screwed into the base of the bowl.   The compass bowl is completely filled with a silicone fluid, chosen because it has no detrimental effect on the material of the bowl and because its temperature/viscosity changes are small.   A bellows at the rear of the bowl allows for change of the volume of the liquid due to variation in temperature.
1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesThe magnet system comprises a steel ring magnet to which is riveted a dome.   The iridium- tipped pivot screws into the centre of the dome and rests in a sapphire cup secured to the vertical stem by the cupholder.   The magnet system is therefore pendulously suspended.   The compass card is attached to the magnet system by brackets riveted to the card and to the magnet.   When the compass is inverted, the magnet system cannot become detached from the vertical stem since the clearance between the dome and the top of the bowl is insufficient to allow the pivot to leave the cup.
1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesTwo pairs of adjustable correctors are fitted to a metal plate which is secured to the top of the bowl.   When the corrector magnets are in the neutral position, index lines engraved on small circular rotatable plates above the magnets are aligned with fixed lines engraved on the main plate.   The main plate is also engraved with the letters B and C against the rotatable plates, denoting the coefficients for which the correction is being made.   The operating heads for the correctors are situated at the top front of the bowl, one on either side of the filler plug.   The letters B and C are engraved on the rim of the top plate above their respective corrector operating heads.   The operating heads are turned by a small E2 compass corrector key.
1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesTwo radial slots in the compass mounting plate permit adjustment in azimuth to correct for coefficient A.   A scale engraved on the rim of the top plate between the letters B and C enables the amount of movement to be assessed.   The E2A compass is shown in Fig 1.

Compass, Type E2B

1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesThe E2B compass is a variant of the E2A compass, the difference being that the E2B compass incorporates direct red lighting of the compass bowl.   This lighting is achieved by means of a miniature 28 v DC non-magnetic lamp and a red filter.   The intensity of illumination of the lamp can be varied by means of a standard pattern dimmer switch.   The E2B compass is used in aircraft where the cockpit lighting is red.   The E2B compass is shown in Fig 2.

Compass, Type E2C

1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesThe E2C compass is almost identical to the E2B compass but has a clear instead of a red filter around the internal lamp.   It thus has direct white lighting of the compass bowl instead of red.   The E2C compass is used in aircraft where the cockpit lighting is white.   (Courtesy AP 3456D Aircraft Instruments and Instruments Systems to AL27 Jul83.)
E5 Code used in En-route document to indicate the type of electrical servicing and starter trolleys that are available at an airfield. E5 provides DC 28v/35kW.
E/A Enemy aircraft
ECM Electronic Counter Measures.
EDA Emergency Deployment Area.
EFTS Elementary Flying Training School.
EMU ElectroMechanical Unit
EPAS Equipment, Pay and Accounting Section
ERP Engine Running Pan.
ESWL Equivalent Single Wheel Loading in thousands of pounds.
ETA Estimated Time of Arrival.
ETD Estimated Time of Departure.
ETNJ International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) indicator used for GAF Jever.
ETPS Empire Test Pilots School.
EUREKA Code word for distance finding radar which can also be used with airborne Rebecca equipment for blind bombing.
EWS Emergency Water Supply.
F18 Code used in En-route document to show the fuel available at an airfield. F18 is for 100/130AVGAS and in many instances 100LL or 100L. This new fuel has the same specification but with a lower lead content; it is normally coloured blue.
F252 Form used to record a charge against an offending airman.
F40 Code used in En-route document to show the fuel available at an airfield. F40 is for AVTAG/FS II or JP-4. This fuel usually also contains Corrosion inhibitor such as HITEC-515. The FS II (AL-31) and the corrosion inhibitor may be combined and added in the form of AL-38.
F321 BAOR Sleeper/Seat/Cabin Application Form.   (Click to see an example.)
F412 Form 412 contain the proceedings of a Board of Inquiry.   They are assembled as follows:
a. Diary of Action showing the day-to-day progress of the board.
b. The completed first 8 pages of F412.
c. The green sheets of F412 starting at Page 9 and containing:
   (1) Narrative of events and circumstances.
   (2) The board's findings as required by the terms of reference.
   (3) Recommendations.
   (4) Observations.
d. Statements of witness warned under QR(RAF) 1269(6) or the equivalent Army regulations, viz BI(A)R 1956, r. 11 and QR(Army) App XI, para 55.
e. Page for remarks by the station commander.
f. Page for remarks by AOC.
g. Page for remarks by AOC-in-C.
h. Record of evidence starting at Page 15. Ensure that the correct procedure has been followed when the character or reputation of a person has been affected.
j. Annexes (lettered). These should include:
   (1) Accident Investigation Branch report.
   (2) Additional statements, documents (eg aircraft trim sheets), results of trials, tests etc.
   (3) Exhibits produced during the proceedings.
   (4) Map showing the position of the crash and location of eye-witnesses, and plan of wreckage.
   (5) Relevant photographs.
   (6) Copies of relevant extracts from the service documents of the pilot (Form 5000 series).
   (7) Form 2888, if Service personnel and equipment attended the fire.
   (8) Form 2855 and Form 2855A if applicable.
F414A Form 414A Summary of Flying and Assessments which is completed each year or at the end of a flying course and a copy is pasted in your logbook.
F458 Form 458 Storeman's Issue Book.
F540 Form 540 Squadron Operations Record book. See under each Unit Chronology.
F541 Form 541 Squadron Operations Record book. Part of F540 which details work carried out that month. See under each Unit Chronology.
F656 Vehicle Servicing Instructions.
F658 Authorisation to use RAF Transport.
Form 700 Form 700 contains the servicing and flying records for each aircraft.    The pilot signs for the aircraft in the F700 before walking out to check it and take off. He signs the F700 when the flight is complete, entering the flying times and any p[problems he encountered.   The ground crews enter the servicing that they have completed on the aircraft and sign the F700.
F856 RAF certificate of Service Book.   (Click to see front page.)
F1250 RAF Personal Identification Card.
F1369 Officers' Confidential Annual Report Form.
F1629 RAF Driving Licence.
F4225 RAF Form 4255 Pilot Navigation Log Card.   (Click to see an example of its use.)
Form D Form D is used to task aircraft for ground attack army support missions.
FAA Fleet Air Arm.
FAC Forward Air Control.
FAE Unknown specialisation in RAF ranks
FAF French Air Force.
FAW Fighter All Weather.
FB Fighter Bomber
FBIM Fellow British Institute of Management.
FCS Fighter Combat School.
FDP Forward or Fighter Direction Post.
FEAF Far East Air Force.
ff ff code used in En-route documents indicating that the facility is open as for the aerodrome times.
FFAR Folding Fin Aerial Rocket.
FFI Free From Infection.
FGA Fighter Ground Attack
FIR Flight Information Region.
Fixed cross This was the alternate to the use of the gyro stabilised gunsight for air to ground firing. The aiming pipper is sloppy using the gyro but if it could be held steady on the target then allowances were automatically made for wind. The alternative was using the fixed cross in the gunsight, which was easier to fly and hold on to the target, and then judging for yourself what offset to allow for wind. Both methods could produce good scores and which was used was very much a personal preference of the pilot.
FL Flight Levels is the height indicated when the altimeter sub-scale is set to 1013.2 millibars.
FMT Form Mechanical Transport.
FMT3 Form Mechanical Transport 3 used to report motor accidents.
FPI Fuel Pump Isolating.
FPS6 Fixed permamnet land-based-Radar (pulsed)-Search. Twelve General Electric AN/FPS-6 height finding radars were purchased from the United States government at the beginning of 1952 to augment the aging British Type 13 radars. Height finder radar aerial radiation patterns feature narrow vertical and broad horizontal beam widths. The aerial nods up and down at 20 or 30 cycles per minute and can rapidly slew in azimuth (Azication) to face the bearing of the target that you want to find the height of.
FR Fighter Reconnaissance.
FRADU Flight Refuelling and Air Direction Unit - Royal Navy unit result of merging two functions.
FRAeS Fellow of the Royal Aeronautical Society.
FRC Flight Refrence Card.
FRSE Fellow of the Royal Royal Society of Edinburgh.
FRU Flight Refuelling Unit - Royal Navy unit.
FS Flight Sergeant.
FTC Flying Training Command.
FTS Flying Training School.
FW Focke Wulf or Flying Wing.
FWDO Flying Wing Duty Officer.
FW Flying Wing Head Quarters.
G Gravity. 1G is equal to the normal forces on the body. 2G imposes twice the load on the body. Without special equipment and strengthened aircraft the normal flying limit used to be 6G.
G4F stationpic823.jpg, 19978 bytesComponents 1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesThe G4F operates on principles similar to the G4B, but, being intended primarily for single seater aircraft, it is a simpler instrument.   It comprises four basic units:

a. Detector Unit.
b. Gyro Unit.
c. Amplifier Unit.
d. Corrector Control Box.

Gyro Unit

1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesThe gyro unit is similar to, but not interchangeable with the gyro unit of the G4B.   The main difference is that the control transmitter of the G4B gyro unit becomes the control transformer of the G4F gyro unit.   The control panel of the G4B is replaced in the G4F by a DG compass selector switch in the form of a simple left/right switch located at the top left-hand corner of the gyro unit face, as shown in Fig 11.

Annunciator.

1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesThe annunciator is the same as that in the G4B.

Synchronization.

1px-trans.gif, 43 bytesTo synchronize the compass, push in the synchronization knob and turn in the direction shown by the indication of the annunciator until an indication midway or alternating dot/cross is obtained.   It will not normally be necessary to re-synchronize the compass in flight unless the gyro exceeds its limits, ±85° in pitch and roll, or the compass has been used in the Direct Gyro mode.   Pressing the synchronization knob automatically erects the gyro but should only be carried out in straight and level, un-accelerated flight.   (Courtesy AP 3456D Aircraft Instruments and Instruments Systems to AL27 Jul83.)
GA Ground Attack
GAF German Air Force
GBE Knight (or Dame) Grand Cross of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire, 1917.  The Order was divided into military and civil divisions in December 1918.  The Order is limited to 100 Knights and Dames Grand Cross, 845 Knights and Dames Commanders, and 8,960 Commanders. Also, no more than 858 Officers and 1,464 Members may be appointed per year.
GC George Cross.   In 1940, King George VI felt the need to formally recognise individual acts of outstanding bravery by the civilian population during the Blitz - Nazi Germany's bombing campaign against British cities.   He decided to create an award for the men and women of the Commonwealth whose courage could not be marked by any other honour.   There existed many decorations and medals instituted by the King's predecessors for the reward of gallantry and/or meritorious conduct, but these, by their terms of reference, were largely restricted to members of the armed forces.   It was to meet this evident need that the King instigated the George Cross and George Medal, the result of long deliberation and much careful study, both as to eligibility and design.   The decoration consists of a plain silver cross, with the Royal cipher "GVI" in the angle of each limb.   In the centre is a circular medallion showing St. George and the Dragon, and surrounded by the inscription, "For Gallantry".   The reverse is plain and bears the name of the recipient and the date of the award.   The George Cross, which is worn before all other decorations except the Victoria Cross, is suspended from a dark blue ribbon threaded through a bar adorned with laurel leaves.   Ladies not in uniform wear the George Cross, suspended from a wide bow of dark blue ribbon, below the left shoulder.   Recipients are permitted to use the post-nominal letters "GC" after their name. Although it’s award is recommended by the Prime Minister, the decoration is bestowed by the Sovereign.
GCA Ground Controlled Approach. This usually follows a QGH/controlled Descent Through Cloud (CDTC) which ideally positions the aircraft5 to 5 to 10 miles in line with the landing runway at about 1,500 feet above the ground. From there the pilot usually changes radio channels and is taken over by a ground radar controller on the airfield. He uses the local airfield radar to talk the pilot down on to the runway. Descent is begun at about 5 nautical miles at about 300 feet per minute.
GCB Knight (or Dame) Grand Cross of the Most Honourable Order of the Bath, 1725.  Order of Chivalry.  Remodelled 1815, and enlarged many times since.  The Order is divided into civil and military divisions.  Women became eligible for the Order from 1 January 1971.  The Most Honourable Order of the Bath is the third-highest order of chivalry in the British honours system.  It is primarily awarded to serving member of the armed forces, and to some civilian servants.  While the term "Knight of the Bath" goes back into medieval times, referring to a ritual of washing followed by a night of prayer, the order was formally established by King George I on 18 May 1725.  Originally, the Order included the Sovereign, the Great Master and 36 Knights Companions.  The Order is presently limited to 120 Knights and Dames Grand Commanders, 355 Knights and Dames Commanders, and 1,925 Companions. The limit does not include foreign honourary members and Royal Knights.
GCI Ground Controlled Interception
GCMG Knight Grand Cross or Dame Grand Cross of the Most Distinguished Order of Saint Michael and Saint George is a British order of chivalry founded on 28 April 1818 by George, Prince of Wales (later George IV) whilst he was acting as Prince Regent for his father, George III.   The Order includes three classes, in descending order of seniority:  Knight Grand Cross or Dame Grand Cross (GCMG),  Knight Commander or Dame Commander (KCMG or DCMG) and Companion (CMG).   It is used to honour individuals who have rendered important services in relation to Commonwealth or foreign nations.   People are appointed to the Order rather than awarded it.   Ambassadors are regularly appointed CMGs.   Ian Fleming's spy, James Bond, was fictionally decorated with the CMG in 1953 (mentioned in the novel From Russia with Love).   The Order's motto is Auspicium melioris aevi (Latin for "Token of a better age").   Its patron saints, as the name suggests, are St Michael the Archangel and St George.   One of its primary symbols is that of St Michael trampling over Satan.   The Order is the sixth-most senior in the British honours system, after The Most Noble Order of the Garter, The Most Ancient and Most Noble Order of the Thistle, The Most Illustrious Order of St Patrick, The Most Honourable Order of the Bath, and The Most Exalted Order of the Star of India.   The third of the aforementioned Orders—which relates to Ireland, no longer a part of the United Kingdom—still exists but is in disuse; no appointments have been made to it since 1934.   The last of the Orders on the list, related to India, has also been in disuse since the country's independence in 1947.   It is sometimes humorously said that the abbreviations actually stand for "Call Me God" (CMG), "Kindly (or Kings) Call Me God" (KCMG) and "God Calls Me God" (GCMG).   These became generally known from the television series Yes Minister, but were in use in the Diplomatic Service long before that.
GCT Ground Combat Training
GD General Duties, main flying branch of the RAF.
GD/P General Duties/Pilot.
GDR German Democratic Republic.   East Germany before re-unification.
GEC General Electric Company
GEE World War Two Navigation and Bombing Aid
GEEH World War Two Blind Bombing Aid
GEOREF Geographical Reference.   This was a simpler system than, but based on, latitude and longitude.   It used a system of lettered squares subdivided into smaller numerically labelled areas, e.g. NH1247.   This gave a precise enough location of a moving aircraft for all practical purposes and was very convenient and quick to transmit over the radio or telephone line.
GGS Gyroscopic Gun Sight
GHQ General Head Quarters.
GLO Ground Liaison Officer
GOC General Officer Commanding.
Gn Green.
GP General Purpose.
GPO General Post Office.
GPO General Post Office.
GR Ground Radar
GREEN CARD The Green Card is the most common instrument flying experience rating.   In the RAF the ratings were usually tested every 6 months.   As well as passing the test applicants had also to have certain minimum practical experience, e.g. hours of instrument flying both simulated and actual in the last 6 months.   The hierarchy of qualifications was as follows:
Command Instrument Rating Examiner (CIRE) - Able to test and award to other IREs and below in a Command;
Instrument Rating Examiner (IRE) - Able to examine and award the lower qualifications.   There might be one or two per squadron;
Master Green - Held by the most experienced and able pilots;
Green - Most experienced pilots in flying practice would be expected to hold a Green rating;
White - The first step on the ladder and a minimum before pilots could fly in Instrument Flight Rules weather conditions.
Each level had its own margins of error within which the pilot must fly whilst performing set manoeuvres "under the hood".   The examination was an Instrument Rating Test (IRT) and was obviously conducted on dual seat versions of the aircraft or in a similar type where there was no dual seat version, e.g. the Vampire or Meteor before the Hunter T7 was introduced.   It was usually carried out with the examinee flying with a hood that stopped him seeing the outside world and forced him to fly only on instruments.   The examiner, of course, had to fly in the clear so that he could maintain a lookout.   The test limits were applicable to each aircraft type and may differ depending on the performance of the aircraft.
A higher level rating was sought after as it allowed your Flight Commander to authorise you for solo flight in worst weather conditions than lower rated pilots.   (See Instrument Flight Rules)
I do not have a record of the test limits or content of a Hunter IRT and would be grateful if anyone could let me have a copy.
Green Salad NATO codeword for a piece of electronic equipment that allowed pilots to home on to transmitting aircraft without the aid of ground radar.   (Click to see full explanation.)
GS General Situation or General Staff or Geographic Services.
GSFG Group of Soviet Forces, Germany.
GSGS General Staff. Geographical Section.
GSM General Situations Map.
GSO German Service Organisation.
GSOFG Group of Soviet Occupying Forces Germany.
GW Grading Wing or Guided Weapon.
Gyro This was the use of the gyro stabilised gunsight for air to ground firing. The aiming pipper was sloppy using the gyro but if it could be held steady on the target then allowances were automatically made for wind. The alternative was using the fixed cross in the gunsight, which was easier to fly and hold on to the target, and then judging for yourself what offset to allow for wind. Both methods could produce good scores and which was used was very much a personal preference of the pilot.
H High Altitude En-Route Chart preceded by identification.
H515 Code used in En-route document to indicate the type of fluid that is available at an airfield. H-515 is a hydraulic fluid and has a Joint Services Designation of OM-15.
HARMONISATION Harmonisation is the ground alignment of the guns in the aircraft so that the rounds go where the pipper aiming point is marking at the correct firing range.
HAS Hardened Aircraft Shelters.
HAT Height Above Touchdown.
HAYRAKE Codeword for heading for return to base.
HE High Explosive or High Energy.
HF High Frequency
HJ Code used in the En-route documents to indicate that the hours of operation are Sunrise to Sunset.
HLBF High Level Battle Formation.
HM Her (His) Majesty
HOGSHIT Holder of Golden Share Honorium Ilial Tenure [See golden Share Holders]
HP High Pressure
HQFC Headquarters Fighter Command
HRH His Royal Highness.
HSA Hawker Siddeley Aviation.
HSI High Speed Intercept
HV High Velocity.
HVAR High Velocity Aerial Rocket
I/C In Charge of
IAA Internal Aids Approach.   An example as used on the Vulcan.   The Internal Aids approach was a means of talking down the pilot to a break-off height, using the H2S radar as the talk-down tool.   I used to like doing these, but I needed the OCU notes to remember how they were done.   The break off height was officially 600ft, but if the conditions were good then I have done them down to 300ft, provided the line-up was good and the pilots had good visual contact with the lights.   The idea was pretty simple, basically it involves using radar settings to 'frig' range markers and heading indicator.   The true runway heading is a known, so a heading marker can be set up on the PPI with the 585 set in PC and EMERGENCY mode.   The radar height dial can be set so that it produces a range marker at defined ranges. You now have a range and bearing marker.   In the diagram below the aircraft can fly to the overhead, then go out on the downwind leg to a 10 mile point, at a height allocated by ATC; at this point the pilot turns 'base' and descends at 2100ft AGL.   With the range marker on the PPI, and the airfield also showing and the 1/4mil. scale the Nav Radar then turns the aircraft to runway heading (allowing for a/c turning circle) so that the pilots will ideally roll out with the heading marker straight down the runway.   The Radar will call heading adjustments to the pilot to keep the runway tracking down the heading marker as the aircraft approaches the airfield.   At this time the pilot maintains 2100ft.   Using the table at the bottom of this entry the range marker can be set at desired range points; with 42,000ft on the emergency height pot he has a 7 mile marker. When the touchdown point hits the range ring the Radar calls for a 300ft/mile descent rate.   From this point on the Radar monitors the tracking of the runway along the heading marker to ensure he stays on runway centre line, at the same time the Plotter cranks in the new emergency height settings each time a range point is hit.   So, having started at 7 miles, the plotter sets up the 6 mile marker while the Radar monitors runway heading.   Once the six mile marker is hit he tells the pilot the range and that he should now be 1,800ft AGL.   The pilot maintains correct rate of descent for each mile mark called while the Radar monitors heading.   When the 2 mile marker is hit the aircraft should be 600ft AGL and if all has gone to plan the pilot is at break off with the runway on the nose.   He may then elect to continue the talk down to 300ft if he’s comfortable.   But not officially.   Done well they are a good crew exercise, and who knows when it might be needed in an emergency.   
Emergency Height set (ft)   Range in miles   Aircraft height above touchdown
42,0001px-trans.gif, 43 bytes71px-trans.gif, 43 bytes2,100
36,0001px-trans.gif, 43 bytes61px-trans.gif, 43 bytes1,800
30,0001px-trans.gif, 43 bytes51px-trans.gif, 43 bytes1,500
24,0001px-trans.gif, 43 bytes41px-trans.gif, 43 bytes1,200
18,0001px-trans.gif, 43 bytes31px-trans.gif, 43 bytes   900
12,0001px-trans.gif, 43 bytes21px-trans.gif, 43 bytes   600
  6,2001px-trans.gif, 43 bytes11px-trans.gif, 43 bytes   300
IAM Instrument Approach Minima given for an airfield in the En-route documents.
IAS Indicated Air Speed
ICAO International Civil Aviation Organisation.
ICBM Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile.
IDF Interceptor Day Fighter
IF Instrument Flying
IFF Identification Friend or Foe. Electronic equipment is used to avoid friendly fire incidents where units on the same side attack one another by mistake.
INS International News Service.
IFR Instrument Flight Rules.   These rules apply to aircraft that are being operated in conditions that are worse than Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC).   IMC limits are:
Visibility less than 5 nautical miles;
1,000 ft vertical clearance from cloud;
One nautical mile horizontally clear of cloud.
ILS Instrument Landing System is a radio aid to navigation, intending to facilitate aircraft in landing, which provides lateral and vertical guidance including indications of distance from the optimum point of landing.
IMC Instrument Meteorological Conditions.   Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling less than the minima specified for Visual Meteorological Conditions.   NOTE: In a controlled zone, a Visual Flight Rules flight may proceed under instrument meteorological conditions as if and as authorised by air traffic control.
IMN Indicated Mach Number.
IP Initial Point.   Easily identified point on the ground from which a ground attack run would be started.
IPN Iso-Propyl-Nitrate.   Highly flammable liquid fuel used by the Hunter F.6 Avon engine starter motor.
IQ Intelligence Quotient.
IRA Irish Republican Army
IRBM Irish Republican Army
IRE Instrument Rating Examiner.    The Instrument Rating Examiner is an experienced pilot who could test and award ratings to other pilots.   In the RAF the ratings were usually tested every 6 months.   As well as passing the test applicants had also to have certain minimum practical experience, e.g. hours of instrument flying both simulated and actual in the last 6 months.   The hierarchy of qualifications was as follows:
Command Instrument Rating Examiner (CIRE) - Able to test and award to other IREs and below in a Command;
Instrument Rating Examiner (IRE) - Able to examine and award the lower qualifications.   There might be one or two per squadron;
Master Green - Held by the most experienced and able pilots;
Green - Most experienced pilots in flying practice would be expected to hold a Green rating;
White - The first step on the ladder and a minimum before pilots could fly in Instrument Flight Rules weather conditions.
Each level had its own margins of error within which the pilot must fly whilst performing set manoeuvres "under the hood".   The examination was an Instrument Rating Test (IRT) and was obviously conducted on dual seat versions of the aircraft or in a similar type where there was no dual seat version, e.g. the Vampire or Meteor before the Hunter T7 was introduced.   It was usually carried out with the examinee flying with a hood that stopped him seeing the outside world and forced him to fly only on instruments.   The examiner, of course, had to fly in the clear so that he could maintain a lookout.   The test limits were applicable to each aircraft type and may differ depending on the performance of the aircraft.
A higher level rating was sought after as it allowed your Flight Commander to authorise you for solo flight in worst weather conditions than lower rated pilots.   (See Instrument Flight Rules)
I do not have a record of the test limits or content of a Hunter IRT and would be grateful if anyone could let me have a copy.
IRT The Instrument Rating Test was used to grade pilots instrument flying ability and therefore to give them a rating.   In the RAF the ratings were usually tested every 6 months.   As well as passing the test applicants had also to have certain minimum practical experience, e.g. hours of instrument flying both simulated and actual in the last 6 months.   The hierarchy of qualifications was as follows:
Command Instrument Rating Examiner (CIRE) - Able to test and award to other IREs and below in a Command;
Instrument Rating Examiner (IRE) - Able to examine and award the lower qualifications.   There might be one or two per squadron;
Master Green - Held by the most experienced and able pilots;
Green - Most experienced pilots in flying practice would be expected to hold a Green rating;
White - The first step on the ladder and a minimum before pilots could fly in Instrument Flight Rules weather conditions.
Each level had its own margins of error within which the pilot must fly whilst performing set manoeuvres "under the hood".   The examination was an Instrument Rating Test (IRT) and was obviously conducted on dual seat versions of the aircraft or in a similar type where there was no dual seat version, e.g. the Vampire or Meteor before the Hunter T7 was introduced.   It was usually carried out with the examinee flying with a hood that stopped him seeing the outside world and forced him to fly only on instruments.   The examiner, of course, had to fly in the clear so that he could maintain a lookout.   The test limits were applicable to each aircraft type and may differ depending on the performance of the aircraft.
A higher level rating was sought after as it allowed your Flight Commander to authorise you for solo flight in worst weather conditions than lower rated pilots.   (See Instrument Flight Rules)
I do not have a record of the test limits or content of a Hunter IRT and would be grateful if anyone could let me have a copy.
ISA International Standard Atmosphere
ISBN International Standard Book Number
ITS Initial Training School.
ITW Initial Training Wing.
JAR Joint Aviation Requirements, being drawn up by 18 European states aimed at unifying airworthiness, flight crew licensing and other criteria among signatory nations.
JEHU Joint Experimental Helicopter Unit.